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Re: The Birds and the Bees of Gender

From:Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
Date:Tuesday, March 30, 1999, 6:54
At 01:37 30/03/99 -0500, you wrote:
>Could someone please explain gender to me (as it relates to language). I >just can't seem to understand the necessity of verb - noun agreement. >Doesn't it just add a whole stratum of complexity? Why must there really >be a 'le' and a 'la' in French? English is an asexual language, isn't >it? Why is this so if it is a Germanic language with influences from >French? >
Gender in languages relates to the classification of "objects" in a language. Some languages, like Swahili, have many classes where "objects" are listed, depending on common points like shape, animation (objects vs. living things), or the fact that they don't fit to another class! Gender systems are often the simplification of a former complex class system (it may be so even in Indo-European). And yes, it is often unnecessary and complex (for people who are not accustomed to it, I am French and I don't find the French gender system, despite its lack of sensibility, too difficult to handle) adding problems like noun-verb agreement or noun-adjective agreement. But let me ask you a question? Do you find the plural system in English necessary, or do you think that it only adds a whole stratum of unnecessary complexity? You will certainly find it sensible to mark nouns for plural. But for a Japanese speaker, it is a difficulty that doesn't exist in their language, and they think they don't need it (and in fact, they do it very well without plural), and when they learn English, they just say: but why must I always use the plural even when I think number is irrelevant? Why must I use the plural when I count objects? I use a number, so I don't need to add the plural to the noun. Everybody knows with the number that there are several objects... I just said that to show you that questions about the necessity of the gender system are generally pointless. Why does French have a gender system? Because Latin had one, and French didn't lose it much. Why has English nearly totally lost its gender system? Who knows? Maybe the sound changes ruined it. There is no necessity in it. Language has nothing to do with necessity. A language is what it is because it has evolved from another language that was what it was. There's nothing more to say. Language has to do with history, not necessity. Of course it would be simpler to have no grammatical gender, but when we compare French and English as a whole, which language is more complex and difficult? French, with its gender system and its subject-verb agreement conjugation, or English, with its difficult phonology and its bunch of irregular verbs? As for complexity, you can't compare bits of grammar of different languages. You must compare languages as a whole, and you will find that finally, different languages are just as complex as any others. Their difficulties are not the same, that's all. I hope I helped to de-confuse you a bit.
>Please help, >Michael the Gender Confused > >
Christophe Grandsire |Sela Jemufan Atlinan C.G. "Reality is just another point of view." homepage : http://www.bde.espci.fr/homepage/Christophe.Grandsire/index.html