Re: The Birds and the Bees of Gender
From: | FFlores <fflores@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, March 31, 1999, 1:33 |
Michael Mouatt <arcangel@...> wrote:
> Could someone please explain gender to me (as it relates to language). I
> just can't seem to understand the necessity of verb - noun agreement.
> Doesn't it just add a whole stratum of complexity?
It does so only for L2 learners, not to native speakers,
as I see it. As a Spanish speaker, I've never had any
difficulty in "remembering" the gender of any noun,
because it's been there all the time and I feel it as
part of the word.
> Why must there really
> be a 'le' and a 'la' in French?
It doesn't have to be, but it is. As many have pointed out,
it's not a matter of necessity but of semi-random evolution.
> English is an asexual language, isn't
> it? Why is this so if it is a Germanic language with influences from
> French?
English is *genderless* (except for the third person singular
pronouns). I don't know why most European langs have gender
while English doesn't -- it must be because of the same changes
that made the case inflections disappear.
--Pablo Flores
* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *
The trouble with the rat race is that even
if you win, you're still a rat.
Lily Tomlin