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Re: Norman French Question

From:R A Brown <ray@...>
Date:Friday, February 24, 2006, 8:50
Yahya Abdal-Aziz wrote:
> Hi Adam, > > On Thu, 23 Feb 2006, Adam Walker wrote: > >>Would anyone here happen to know the word "ly" in the >>phrase "saunz plus à ly" means? Also what is the >>modern standard French equivalent and the etymology, >>if you happen to know? > > > I'd hazard a guess by analogy from modern French > "lui", that it might mean "him".
I'm not an expert on Norman-French, but I do have an Old French grammar. "ly" would, of course, be an orthographic variation of "li". Old French did not have the modern distinction of conjunctive & disjunctive pronouns. But on checking the 3rd person pronoun, I find that there are two series of the 'cas régime' (oblique case): MASC. FEM. 1. lo, le la 2. lui, li lei, lie, li #1 are used for direct objects and #2 for indirect. I am not sure which series were preferred after prepositions. But assuming either were possible, then "a ly" could mean 'to him' or 'to her', I guess.
> Which would make me > interlinearise the whole phrase in French as "sans plus > à lui", or translate it to "sans plus que lui", "without > more than him".
Yes, there's little doubt, I think, that 'saunz' is the modern 'sans' (without). But it seem to me a big jump from 'a' to 'que'. I would hazard a guess: "without any more for him (her)" I notice that at noon UTC on March 1st, all parts of the following site will be open to unrestricted access: Maybe Adam could contact them for clarification of ""saunz plus à ly". -- Ray ================================== ================================== MAKE POVERTY HISTORY


Adam Walker <carrajena@...>