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Re: Is this sound change plausible?

From:JS Bangs <jaspax@...>
Date:Monday, January 6, 2003, 20:26
> I was doodling out a new language sketch, which contains an open /O/ and > close /o/. Later, as I went along, I kept finding myself wanting to > change /o/ to /2/ (i.e. as a development from a parent language to a > daughter language). Now I know that in several languages (such as > English and Occitan) original /o/ changed to /u/, but is /o/ to /2/ > feasible? I can't think of any natlang I've encountered it in, so I was > wondering if anyone else has, or if someone more knowledgeable in > phonetics and/or historical linguistics could tell me whether it is > possible/plausible, or if it would never (or not likely) happen in a > "real" language.
I don't think this is too terrifically unlikely. It could be made more likely if the /o/ were pushed there by /O/, i.e. /O/ started getting higher and threatened to merge with /o/, so /o/ fronted. Being combined with /u/ -> /y/ would also increase the likelihood. Jesse S. Bangs Jesus asked them, "Who do you say that I am?" And they answered, "You are the eschatological manifestation of the ground of our being, the kerygma in which we find the ultimate meaning of our interpersonal relationship." And Jesus said, "What?"