Re: Is this sound change plausible?

On Sun, 5 Jan 2003 22:31:07 -0500 Thomas Leigh
<thomas@...> writes:
> I was doodling out a new language sketch, which contains an open /O/
> and
> close /o/. Later, as I went along, I kept finding myself wanting to
> change /o/ to /2/ (i.e. as a development from a parent language to
> a
> daughter language). Now I know that in several languages (such as
> English and Occitan) original /o/ changed to /u/, but is /o/ to /2/
> feasible? I can't think of any natlang I've encountered it in, so I
> was
> wondering if anyone else has, or if someone more knowledgeable in
> phonetics and/or historical linguistics could tell me whether it is
> possible/plausible, or if it would never (or not likely) happen in
> a "real" language.
-

Some dialects/accents of Hebrew have that.  Others have /o/ to /ej/ or
/o/ to /oj/.


-Stephen (Steg)