Re: Spanish pronouns
| From: | Elliott Lash <al260@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, November 16, 2000, 4:06 |
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Jesse S. Bangs ániyë:
No, "se" was a pronoun in Latin, too. It was the reflexive accusative
pronoun "his/herself". In most of the Romance langs it replaced
the dative pronoun when there was another accusative pronoun present, as
well as retaining reflexive and sometimes passive usage. >>
Really? I always knew that 'se' was the reflexive third person pronoun
in Latin, but it's news to me that it sometimes replaced the dative pronoun
derived from 'ille'. Do you have any examples that illustrate the fact that
"In most of the Romance langs it replaced the dative....."?
Elliott