Re: The opposite of resumptive
From: | Tim May <butsuri@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, June 14, 2006, 12:00 |
Remi Villatel wrote at 2006-06-14 01:19:08 (+0200)
>
> Google says (A research on Google showed me) that there is no
> difference between "resumptive" and "anaphoric". I found the same
> definition with identical examples for both of them.
>
I'm pretty sure this is incorrect, and that "resumptive pronoun" has a
much more restricted meaning than "anaphor". See here:
http://www2.let.uu.nl/UiL-OTS/Lexicon/zoek.pl?lemma=Resumptive+pronoun&lemmacode=344
Now, I'm not sure I fully understand that definition, but it clearly
doesn't apply to the whole class of anaphora. Linguistics being what
it is, perhaps there are other traditions in which the terms are
synonymous, but that hasn't been my impression when I've come across
mention of resumptive pronouns before.