Re: Ant: Re: Question about T and D
|From:||Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, September 21, 2005, 18:16|
On Sep 21, 2005, at 1:32 PM, caeruleancentaur wrote:
>> On Sep 20, 2005, at 7:26 PM, Steven Williams wrote:
>>> The Semitic languages got their [T]'s and [D]'s
>>> from the intervocalic and syllable-final
>>> spirantization of plosives, commonly known by the
>>> acronym 'begad kefat' (at least in Hebrew).
>>> Simply put, the plosives [b], [g], [d], [k], [p]
>>> and [t] fricativize into [v], [G], [D], [x], [f]
>>> and [T]. This basic theme runs through Hebrew at
In Middle School i learned the acronym as _beged kefet_, with segolate
"how do you make a /p/ without asphyxiating it?"
[read: '...without *aspirating* it']
~ my friend C
> When I studied Hebrew at Cath. U. we learned the acronym as
> begadkePat, thus making all the consonants stops, rather then
> begadkeFat, with one fricative stuck in there. Our text was "An
> Introduction to Hebrew" by Thomas O. Lambdin.