Re: Ant: Re: Question about T and D
| From: | caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, September 21, 2005, 17:42 |
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> On Sep 20, 2005, at 7:26 PM, Steven Williams wrote:
> > The Semitic languages got their [T]'s and [D]'s
> > from the intervocalic and syllable-final
> > spirantization of plosives, commonly known by the
> > acronym 'begad kefat' (at least in Hebrew).
> >
> > Simply put, the plosives [b], [g], [d], [k], [p]
> > and [t] fricativize into [v], [G], [D], [x], [f]
> > and [T]. This basic theme runs through Hebrew at
> > least.
When I studied Hebrew at Cath. U. we learned the acronym as
begadkePat, thus making all the consonants stops, rather then
begadkeFat, with one fricative stuck in there. Our text was "An
Introduction to Hebrew" by Thomas O. Lambdin.
Charlie
http://wiki.frath.net/user:caeruleancentaur
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