Re: Languages
| From: | Mikael Johansson <mikael.johansson@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, November 5, 2000, 15:59 |
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> Probably. But Latin has a special rule for Present participle declension,
> IIRC.
More or less... There is one whole class of adjectives, with the same form
in nominative singular for all genders, in which the present participle is
included. And as a special rule, the present participle has the singular
ablative ending "-e" and not "-i" _when_ it functions as a verb and not an
adjective (i.e. in constructions such as ablative absolute etc.)
// Mikael Johansson