Re: A phonology

Quoting Roger Mills <romilly@...>:

> JS Bangs wrote--
> > > I meant:  no language exists which divides /upa/ as [up.a].
> >
> > My phonology teachers always claimed that English always divides /N/ to
> > be a coda, so that "singer" should be [siN.r=]. There's some acoustic
> > evidence for this, too.
>
> Probably because it always _is_ a coda. How many Engl. words have medial
> /N/ that is NOT followed by a morpheme boundary??  Langour, that I can
> think of, and it probably has one, historically. (Someone will prove me
> wrong, of course.)
For me, "singer" is [siNNr=], where [NN] represents an ambisyllabic
[N] rather than a geminate.  (Is there a diacritic for ambisyllabicity?)

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Thomas Wier            "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
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