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Re: A phonology

From:Roger Mills <romilly@...>
Date:Friday, July 25, 2003, 22:55
JS Bangs wrote--
> > I meant: no language exists which divides /upa/ as [up.a]. > > My phonology teachers always claimed that English always divides /N/ to be > a coda, so that "singer" should be [siN.r=]. There's some acoustic > evidence for this, too. >
Probably because it always _is_ a coda. How many Engl. words have medial /N/ that is NOT followed by a morpheme boundary?? Langour, that I can think of, and it probably has one, historically. (Someone will prove me wrong, of course.)

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Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>