Re: A phonology
| From: | Roger Mills <romilly@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, July 25, 2003, 22:55 |
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JS Bangs wrote--
> > I meant: no language exists which divides /upa/ as [up.a].
>
> My phonology teachers always claimed that English always divides /N/ to be
> a coda, so that "singer" should be [siN.r=]. There's some acoustic
> evidence for this, too.
>
Probably because it always _is_ a coda. How many Engl. words have medial /N/
that is NOT followed by a morpheme boundary?? Langour, that I can think of,
and it probably has one, historically. (Someone will prove me wrong, of
course.)
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