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Re: About Romance natlangs and conlangs (Re: ) (LONG)

From:Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Sunday, November 21, 1999, 7:33
At 6:56 pm -0500 20/11/99, Nik Taylor wrote:
>FFlores wrote: >> No kidding! You're right! I can't find any other one! >> I guess it must be a late development. IIRC the imperfect >> ending was a clitic at some point in time... > >Well, there's also _ver_ (but that was once _veer_). But, the imperfect >goes straight back to the Latin Imperfect
.....which is pretty early in Romance terms :) But then the Latin imperfect was boringly regular - the major exceptions being 'esse' (to be) & 'posse' (to be able). But even with these, once you know "I was" is 'eram' & "I could" is 'poteram' all the other forms can be regularly derived. The Latin endings -bam, -bas, -bat etc. are derived from an older impefect of 'to be' formed on the PIE *bh- stem which got 'glued on' enclitically (except, of course, with the two verbs above). The PIE *bh- would become f- if initial in Latin, so 'fui', 'fuisti', etc of the perfect, but would regularly develop to -b- intervocalically. What verb-base these enclitics are attached to is less clear. I have seem it stated that, e.g. mittebam <-- *mittens-bam (present participle: I-was sending). Others argue, I think more credibly, that it was some case form of a verbal noun, thus: cf. "I-was a-sending" (<-- I was on sending) which survived in some Brit.English dialects till fairly recently & still survives, I believe, in some US dialects. Ray. ========================================= A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language. [J.G. Hamann 1760] =========================================