On Tue, 27 Mar 2001 19:05:35 +0000 Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>
writes:
> So Latin h-, which was universally lost elsewhere, gets preserved or
> restored? The loss in the spoken language seems to have happened
> before
> the end of the BCE era. I assume the preservation or restoration of
> /h/ must be due to the influence of Aramaic and/or Hebrew.
-
Yup... it'll probably be a good source of hypercorrectafied words, too.
> >Almost... it's infinitive + i:re.
> Instead of the supine + ire found in written Latin?
-
How does that work? From putting together the definition of "supine" in
my English dictionary and the verb charts in my Latin-English dictionary,
it looks like the supine means "(having been) verbed"... how would that +
i:re come up with an active "going to verb" concept?
-Stephen (Steg)
"...and this is why one should not try to create an conlang
based on a language you don't already know..." :-)