Re: Tentative Judajca =A= Conjugations

Steg Belsky sikayal:

> [snip]
> > >Almost... it's infinitive + i:re.
>
> > Instead of the supine + ire found in written Latin?
> -
> How does that work?  From putting together the definition of "supine" in
> my English dictionary and the verb charts in my Latin-English dictionary,
> it looks like the supine means "(having been) verbed"... how would that +
> i:re come up with an active "going to verb" concept?
Actually, the Romance forms came from infinitive + habe:re, using the
reduced forms of habe:re that Vulgar Latin had.  In Spanish, for example,
you get hablar + hé > hablaré; similar things for the other Romance langs.
I beleive that the construction verb + habere originally meant "to have to
do something", which then came to indicate the future.

The Romance conditional came from the infinitive + imperfect of habere,
which has interesting semantic grounds.

Romanian is of course an exception to both of these.


Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu
"It is of the new things that men tire--of fashions and proposals and
improvements and change.  It is the old things that startle and
intoxicate.  It is the old things that are young."
-G.K. Chesterton _The Napoleon of Notting Hill_
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