From: | David Peterson <digitalscream@...> |
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Date: | Wednesday, March 21, 2001, 1:08 |
<<Bilabial fricative? I thought i was the only one to do that, because of influence from the Spanish soft /b/... I thought that all accents of Hebrew use [f] for the softened version of [p].>> That's just the data I've seen. It might have been data from old, old Hebrew, though... -Jenesis