Re: Just a Little Taste of Judean (Part 2)

Josh Roth wrote:
> Well, one of the Hebrew (Aramaic?) plural endings is -im, so the speakers
> could have easily been influenced by that, I think. That would be a good
> enough rationalization, no?
Hmmm ... *maybe*, but from what I know of historical linguistics, that
doesn't seem too likely.  By the time the Romans got to Judea, they were
probably pronouncing those endings as /a:ru/ and /o:ru/.  If it's true
that they were saying /a:ru~/ and /o:ru~/, then it might be conceivable
that the nasalization would be replaced by a nasal consonant, -m being
especially chosen by the influence of -im, MAYBE.

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