Re: Just a Little Taste of Judean (Part 2)

In a message dated 4/11/1999 10:03:07 AM, raybrown@CLARA.CO.UK writes:

>>So just like i often use
>>an English R when speaking Spanish, they might hypercorrect and pronounce
>>the M instead of nasalizing the vowel.
>
>That just won't work, I'm afraid.  There'd be nothing in the spoken Latin
>to hypercorrect!
>
>If you want the -m then it can only come about if we imagine that for some
>reason a group of Aramaic (or Aramaic & Greek) speaking Judeans decide
>to
>learn Classical Latin from written form only and then, for some strange
>reason, they or their descendants actually start speaking it.  I'm finding
>that a difficult scenario to envisage.
Well, one of the Hebrew (Aramaic?) plural endings is -im, so the speakers
could have easily been influenced by that, I think. That would be a good
enough rationalization, no?

Josh