Re: Allophones Question
| From: | Tristan <kesuari@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, February 18, 2003, 15:13 |
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On Wed, 2003-02-19 at 00:42, Christophe Grandsire wrote:
> Latin is exactly like Spanish, in that it had phonemic voiceless fricatives
> (/f/, /s/ and /h/) but no voiced ones (consonantic V was /w/, pronounced [w]
> always, and Z existed only in Greek borrowings, and I'm not sure it would be
> pronounced [z] if it wasn't in Greek itself).
I understand it was pronounced [dz], hence German <z>=/ts/.
Tristan.
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