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Re: Imperative vs Jussive vs Hortative

From:# 1 <salut_vous_autre@...>
Date:Thursday, December 29, 2005, 5:42
Sorry for my long absence but my computer had a big problem, now it is
probably solved, so I'm back.

R A Brown wrote:

>>or am I missing some subtle (or not so subtle) distinction? I notice the >>jussive and hortative are formed with "let" in English, but is that part >>of a larger pattern, for instance? > >No - it is language specific. In French, the three things are done >differently: >Hortative: mangeons! (1st pers. pl. present indic.) >Imperative: mange! mangez! >Jussive: Qu'ils mangent de la brioche! (Que + present subjunctive)
Actually, for first person, it is also part of the imperative, the ending is the same that for present indicative for most verbs like "mangeons!" and "nous mangeons" but different for "être" and "avoir", and this is enough to be different moods. "Être"(to be) is "soyons!" when imperative and "nous sommes" when present indicative and "avoir"(to have) is "ayons!" and "nous avons". The present indicative and the imperative are also different for all verb on pronominal form like "se laver"(to wach oneself) that is "lavons-nous!" and "nous nous lavons". - Max


R A Brown <ray@...>