Re: Question about transitivity/intransitivity
From: | Stone Gordonssen <stonegordonssen@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, June 18, 2003, 15:25 |
>Nik's explanation is a lot clearer than mine.
Perhaps, but I'm still mulling over whether this is a real difference or
just a different way of saying the same thing from a different perspective.
>>Verbs like "see" are still ill-defined in Bes Dis'z as I tried to
>>constrict it to use only transitive verbs. For "I see him" I cheat by
>>using "He is seen by me" - "rafíd sil" - as "I see him" - "sifíd san"
>>translates more as "I cause him to be seen". I've never liked this, but is
>>a bit too late to go about shifting verb forms in Bez Dis'z. ::shrug:: We
>>live and learn.
>
>Not sure what's going on in those examples. I'm not familiar with your
>language...are "rafíd" and "sifíd" the verbs? Could you give interlinears?
Sorry. Brainfart on my part.
- rafíd sil
- [rafI_Hd sIl]
- r-a-fíd s-i-l
- (intransative marker)-he-show (aquired)-me-to
- sifíd san
- [sifI_Hd san]
- s-i-fíd s-a-n
- (acquired)-I-show (acquired)-him-the
Prefixes:
s- = acquired
t- = habitual, frequent, associative
ts- = intrinsic
r- = intransitive
y- = generic/nomic
Infixes:
-i- = 1p
-e- = 2p
-a- = 3p
-o- = diff 3p
-u- = yet another 3p
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