Re: The Monovocalic PIE Myth (was Germans have no /w/, ...)
|From:||Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>|
|Date:||Saturday, June 12, 2004, 19:50|
On Jun 12, 2004, at 12:19 AM, william drewery wrote:
>>> Arabic is a bit odd too. It has 'b', but no 'p'
>> For a similar reason to Japanese's limitation on
>> /p/, sound changes,
>> specifically /p/ -> /f/
> Interesting. Did tis happen in Spanish as well?
Based on comparative evidence from Ladino (Judeo-Spanish), it looks
like Spanish merged /b/ and /v/ into one phoneme.
I think Basque has been blamed for this, also for Spanish's
5-vowelness, and general lack of independent voiced fricatives (i.e.
"en catalañazor / perdió almanzor / el atambor"