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Re: The Monovocalic PIE Myth (was Germans have no /w/, ...)

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Saturday, June 12, 2004, 19:50
On Jun 12, 2004, at 12:19 AM, william drewery wrote:
>>> Arabic is a bit odd too. It has 'b', but no 'p' >> >> For a similar reason to Japanese's limitation on >> /p/, sound changes, >> specifically /p/ -> /f/ > > Interesting. Did tis happen in Spanish as well? > Travis
Based on comparative evidence from Ladino (Judeo-Spanish), it looks like Spanish merged /b/ and /v/ into one phoneme. I think Basque has been blamed for this, also for Spanish's 5-vowelness, and general lack of independent voiced fricatives (i.e. not allophones). -Stephen (Steg) "en catalañazor / perdió almanzor / el atambor"