> Sai,
>
> Actually, Ancient Egyptian used determinatives in reading which were
> not otherwise pronounced - it included just a sign to show what the
> word was referring to (like man or woman or scribe etc...). So the
> idea is not *entirely* foreign. Also, non-phonetic languages such as
> English or French have something akin to determinatives in the way the
> word is written. For example, in French, "parle, parles, parlet" are
> all pronounced the same, but do realize if the word is 2nd person
> singular or 3rd person singular, they add a letter. Now given that it
> was once pronounced, currently it is not done so. Likewise, the k..w
> of know differs from the other word no not in pronunciation but only
> in writing.
>
> best regards,
>
> Chris Weimer
>
http://neonostalgia.com/
>
> --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Sai Emrys <sai@...> wrote:
> >
> >
http://community.livejournal.com/conlangs/47165.html
> >
> > Just found this when digging through my blog archives for something
> else.
> >
> > May be interesting to some of you.
> >
> > - Sai
> >
>