Re: Further language development Q's

 --- Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> a écrit :
> Quoting Steven Williams <feurieaux@...>:
>
> > It's fairly simple. German, for example, had (up
> to
> > the sixteenth century), [r]. It's still pronounced
> > that way in some dialects, I believe, and it's
> also
> > common in some 'old-fashioned' speech, like
> operas,
> > where [r] is seen as more 'melodic'. After about
> the
> > sixteenth century, the German [r] shifted to [R],
> > either because [R] is easier to articulate than
> [r]
> > (it is, at least for me), or from influence from
> > French (this sounds doubtful to me).
>
> FWIW, the French influence is the explanation I've
> always heard. It's also been
> made responsible for the use of uvular r's in Dutch
> and in southern
> Scandinavian dialects.
Hmmph, so I'm wrong. Not the first time :).

> For me, [r] comes easier than [R]. Neither occurs in
> my native 'lect.
Interesting; you're Swedish-born, right? Which rhotic
does your native dialect have? [4]? I'm afraid my
knowledge of Swedish is pathetically nil.


	

	
		
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