Re: The status of the glottal stop in Hebrew
From: | Joe <joe@...> |
Date: | Monday, July 5, 2004, 16:25 |
Outo Otus wrote:
>An example of an aleph in an akward position is in the word "Rosh" (As in
>Rosh Hashanah), as the aleph comes after the o. I am guessing this would
>be ignored, also, do ALL words in Hebrew that begin with a vowel have a
>glottal stop before them? Or only the ones spelt with an aleph? I may be
>wrong, but where a glottal stop ends a word, it seems to be ignored. Also,
>is aleph pronounced when it occurs in the middle of a phrase/sentence?
>(Not phrase initial). Thanks.
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Why should it be? Seems like perfectly fine position to me ([ro?S], I
assume).