Re: ,Language' in language name?
| From: | Tristan Alexander McLeay <anstouh@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, November 30, 2001, 5:37 |
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On Thu, 29 Nov 2001, Andreas Johansson wrote:
> >And using "English" as a individual personal noun is and has always been
> >impossible; one must say "person from England" or "English-speaking person"
> >as the case may be. (Except in a restaurant, where Americans can order
> >"two English", meaning English muffins! Here, of course, there is no
> >plural
> >marker because the noun has been elided.)
>
> I do hope "an Englishman" is still acceptable? Or has the feminists purged
> that?
No-one's ever complained when I've said `she's an Englishman' yet, so it
doesn't seem so. Of course, if anyone ever did I'd just have to argue that
`man' has a different meaning from `-man' and it's the feminists being
istic when they say that they are the same just on the grounds of a
similar spelling.
Tristan
anstouh@yahoo.com.au
War doesn't prove who's right, just who's left.
- BSD Games' Fortune
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