Re: another silly phonology question
From: | Andrew Chaney <adchaney@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, November 29, 2000, 0:25 |
On Tuesday, November 28, 2000, at 02:41 PM, H. S. Teoh wrote:
>
> And weirdly enough, those who "know better" and can pronounce [T] tend to
> look down on those who can't pronounce [T]... who would've thought that
> the British themselves are saying [f] instead of [T] too! :-)
Around here (Louisiana) one would more often hear /d/ or /t/ for /th/.
To me, the [f] makes more sense than /d/ or /t/ since /th/ is a fricative and
/d/ & /t/ are both stops.
On Tuesday, November 28, 2000, at 02:42 PM, Sven Sommerfeld wrote:
>
> In the books they write that Americans (most of them) pronounce /t/ as [D]
> (a tap/flap) following a stressed syllable e.g. "atom", "water", "writer"
> would then be pronounced the same as "rider". In faster speech that [D]
> would reduce to a [?] (then "writer" would again be differnet from "rider")
> :->
I've never heard *any* American use [?] for [t], but /d/ for /t/ is normal:
"wrider", "preddy", "wader", "adom", etc.
Andy
http://www.ucs.usl.edu/~adc7593/
adchaney@louisiana.edu