Re: another silly phonology question

On Mon, 27 Nov 2000, Marcus Smith wrote:

> >I didn't like just having *one* glottal, but looked at some actual
> >languages and got confused.  Are there certain tendencies for *how*
> >language phonologies violate symmetry, when they do?
>
> It seems to me that this was discussed a number of months ago, but that may
> have been a class of mine.
No, I think it was specifically discussed when I asked about Chevraqis having
[b]  [t] [d]  [k]
with no [p] or [g].  The more general question only occurred to me more
recently.  Sorry to be redundant.  <Sheepish look>

YHL