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Re: another silly phonology question

From:Yoon Ha Lee <yl112@...>
Date:Tuesday, November 28, 2000, 5:17
On Mon, 27 Nov 2000, Marcus Smith wrote:

> >I didn't like just having *one* glottal, but looked at some actual > >languages and got confused. Are there certain tendencies for *how* > >language phonologies violate symmetry, when they do? > > It seems to me that this was discussed a number of months ago, but that may > have been a class of mine.
No, I think it was specifically discussed when I asked about Chevraqis having [b] [t] [d] [k] with no [p] or [g]. The more general question only occurred to me more recently. Sorry to be redundant. <Sheepish look> YHL