Re: another silly phonology question
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, November 30, 2000, 2:44 |
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Eric Christopherson wrote:
> I've heard something like ["dI?I~?] for <didn't>. I may be wrong, but this
> kind of use of [?] for /d/ seems to be mainly characteristic of some
> African-American speech around here.
Around here it seems to be associated with African-American and rural
white speech. The whites I hear it from generally have strong Southern
accents, things like /swejt tej/ for "sweet tea".
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