Re: another silly phonology question
From: | Eric Christopherson <raccoon@...> |
Date: | Monday, December 4, 2000, 3:46 |
On Thu, Nov 30, 2000 at 12:20:06PM -0500, Roger Mills wrote:
> You're right, they aren't at the same place of articulation.
> Well, offhand, here's a near-min.pr: caza 'hunt', cada 'each'. I'm not
> sure /T/ would ever be voiced-- maybe in fast speech when word-final -z
> precedes a word-initial voiced stop or nasal? Conversely, word-final
> /d/[D] is sometimes devoiced, as in the common (and criticized)
> pronunciation of "Madrid". Aside from some place names, nouns
> in -dad, -tud, and the little-used plural familiar imperative, -d just isn't
> all that common. I don't hear much Castilian anymore; many Latin Americans
> tend to just drop the -d.
My (Peruvian) Spanish teacher often pronounces -d as [t], like <soledad>
[sole"Dat]. I don't know if it's characteristic of Peru, but it does sound
cool :)
--
Eric Christopherson / *Aiworegs Ghristobhorosyo