Re: another silly phonology question
| From: | H. S. Teoh <hsteoh@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, November 28, 2000, 15:02 |
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On Tue, Nov 28, 2000 at 03:34:06PM +0100, daniel andreasson wrote:
> Teoh wrote:
>
> > I'll let better-clued list members answer that, but I'd like
> > to say that symmetry in languages is not 100%. For example,
> > English has [h] but no other glottals (at least not that I'm
> > aware of).
>
> I'm pre??y sure Bri?ish English has a glo??al stop. :-)
[snip]
Hmm, that's strange. AFAIK, British English tends to *emphasize* the /t/'s
-- [brIt<h>iS h&s glot<h>:@l st<h>Ops]. I thought it was American that's
pronouncing /t/ as [?] :-)
But then again, what do I know about colloquial British... :-)
T
--
Give me some fresh salted fish, please.