Re: another silly phonology question

On Tue, 28 Nov 2000, Kristian Jensen wrote:

> >If any voiceless stop is missing, it is most likely /p/.  If a voiced one
> >is missing, it is most likely /g/. Why? I don't know. If you do not have a
> >contrast in the stops, then you probably have voiceless, unaspirated stops.
>
> The reason for this is physiological. Basically, its more difficult to
> maintain voicing in a velar stop than it is in a labial stop. Voicing is
[snip]
Thanks for the explanations.  Now I need to go back and look at that
diagram in an intro-phonetics book I picked up so I know what body part
is doing what where!  <wry g>

(My HS biology class didn't cover human anatomy at all, with the result
that I still can't remember which one's the tibia and which one's the
fibula, and any time physiology is discussed I *have* to have a picture.
It's strange how stuff I never thought would've been useful to me turns
out to be very important after all!)

[snip]
> constriciton. Sibilants like /s/ are among the most perceptible fricatives that
> can be produced. Velars on the other hand are the least.
There's this part in one of C.S. Lewis' Narnia books (can't remember
which one) where Jane (?) whispers to someone, "Get down [or something].
*Thee* better," where she means "see" by "thee," and the story goes on to
say that she was doing this because the "s" was easier to hear.  :-)
Funny the things you can pick up from reading fantasy!

YHL