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Old Hebrew Emphatics Question

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Sunday, December 15, 2002, 20:28
Since Dan is back now, i'll repost this old message to see if he can help
with it.

~~~~~~~~~~(old message below)~~~~~~~~~~

On Mon, 18 Nov 2002 15:40:21 +0000 =?iso-8859-1?q?bnathyuw?=
<bnathyuw@...> writes:
> is there any difference in the pronunciation of > emphatics in modern hebrew ? i don't trust the > evidence of the uk jewish friends i've asked as they > tend to be phone deaf and unable to speak more than a > few words > bn
- It seems to depend on what the speaker's native language (or the native language of their semi-recent ancestors) is. Speakers of languages without anything resembling emphatics usually don't distinguish them; speakers of languages with pharyngealized, velarized, or glottalized consonants use those. The Israelis i've heard don't seem to distinguish the emphatics, though, even Israelis that use the pharyngeal consonants /H/ and /3/ (hhet and `ayin). But i'm sure Dan Sulani would know better than i would. Is he back from nomail yet? -Stephen (Steg) "keil mevasser mevasser vi'eimer."


Dan Sulani <dnsulani@...>