Re: THEORY: derivation question

On Wed, 24 Mar 1999, Tom Wier wrote:

> <http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/indoeuro.html>
>
> There's a better explanation there, too, called "Everything you ever
> wanted to know about Proto-Indo-European (and the Comparative
> Method) but were afraid to ask!".
Thank you for an incredibly easy-to-understand and useful answer!  Now
I've got another question:  Do these sound laws themselves have some sort
of foundation.  By which I mean, I can see how [p] might become [f] and
vice versa -- but could such a thing as [p] -> [k] ever happen, or is that
just silly?  It's probably a stupid question, but I want to know.

To be more specific, do sounds tend to change to other sounds in the same
area of articulation, with the same degree of phonation, from the same
area of initiation, or any of the above, or none of the above?

(See, Ed, I've been reading that book you recommended!)

--Patrick