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Re: Origin of Spanich /ch/ and /j/

From:Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>
Date:Tuesday, November 26, 2002, 23:41
Pablo David Flores wrote:
> Then /S/ became /x/. Maybe the distinction was lost later and there were > /x/ and /G/ for a while; I'm not sure.
The devoicing occurred before the velarization. So, /S/ and /Z/ merged to /S/, *then* /S/ became /x/
> It'd be nice to know why the older instances of /tS/ didn't become /kx/...
Well, /S/ -> /x/ is odd enough. :-) Besides, fricatives and affricates are different types of sounds, you might as well ask why /t/ -> /k/ didn't occur. :-) Altho, if /tS/ *had* become /kx/, I suspect that that would've simplified pretty soon to /x/, so that "ch" and "j" would merge, so we'd have words like "jico" or "mujajo", and "eight" and "eye" would be homophones. :-) -- "There's no such thing as 'cool'. Everyone's just a big dork or nerd, you just have to find people who are dorky the same way you are." - overheard ICQ: 18656696 AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42