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Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

From:Jeff Rollin <jeff.rollin@...>
Date:Sunday, December 23, 2007, 12:57
In the last episode, (On Thursday 13 December 2007 21:24:43), T. A. McLeay
> Gary Shannon wrote: > > --- MorphemeAddict@WMCONNECT.COM wrote: > > > > <snip> > > > >> I once recently had a short discussion about using "they" as a singular > >> pronoun with an English (ESL) teacher, not his usual profession. He was > >> teaching > >> Chinese students to use "they" as a singular pronoun. > > > > Lately I've heard "they" used a lot as a gender-neutral replacement for > > "he", "she", or the awkward "he/she", or "he or she". > > > > E.g: "When a player is ready, he or she will serve the ball." > > Becomes: "When a player is ready, they will serve the ball." > > In fact, this is not a "recent" phenomenon. It dates back hundred of > years to the early Middle English period. I would consider it a very > important part of the role of an ESL to be teaching something that's > lasted that long and is used by very many people to their students. > > Likewise, it's worth noting that "aren't" could develop from "amn't" by > purely phonetic processes in non-rhotic dialects---the orthography, as > ever, misleads---and then be generalised to rhotic ones, much as > Americans put an /r/ in Burma and Myanmar that was never there before. > > -- > Tristan.
AFAIK the /r/ in "Myanmar" and the first /r/ in "Burma" have always been there (for people with rhotic accents, anyhoo); I suppose it's possible some people pronounce "Burma" as "Burmar" though. Jeff. -- "Please understand that there are small European principalities devoted to debating Tcl vs. Perl as a tourist attraction." -- Cameron Laird


T. A. McLeay <conlang@...>