Re: tense marking and typology

A piece of J. Barefoot:

>where different word orders mean different tenses. Is there any precedent
>for this? Does it violate typology rules completely to allow SVO, VSO and
>SOV in the same language (even if the language is, admittedly, in
        Spanish and French do this, to some extent.  Both languages are normally
SVO, but they become VSO when asking a question, and SOV when the object is
a pronoun.  Not the same as showing different tenses by the order, but
there's the precedent you asked for, anyway.  :)


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