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Re: "To whom"

From:# 1 <salut_vous_autre@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 26, 2005, 0:29
>[1] Yes, for some few people "could of" actually involves a real "of", and >writing it that way might be justifiable [albeit not to prescriptivist >grammarians] but IME most people who write 'could of' actually say >"could've".
Forgive my ignorance, but may I ask for a little example using "could of" as "of"? :-) I've never seen this in a sentence (or I've not understand and forget or mis-interpreted it :-P) What kind of "of" can it replace in natural speech? I'd like my speech to be as natural as possible and that's the kind of thing I need to understand And, with the same goal of being able to talk naturaly: I know how to pronounce "I'd go", "you'd go", "he'd go", "we'd go"... but how is pronounced "it'd go"? [It@d] with a very short schwa? or is it simply not usable and everybody says "it would"? -Max

Replies

Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...>
Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...>
Tristan McLeay <conlang@...>