Re: "To whom"
From: | Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, January 26, 2005, 0:40 |
"could of" = "could have"
"If I had gotten here earlier I could have gone with
them."
"it'd" pronounced where I live as if it were spelled
"id-id". Americans pronounce an aweful lot of T's as
D's as in "boddle" (bottle) "cidy" (city), etc.
Someone who pronounces their T's is immediately
branded a foreigner.
--- # 1 <salut_vous_autre@...> wrote:
> >[1] Yes, for some few people "could of" actually
> involves a real "of", and
> >writing it that way might be justifiable [albeit
> not to prescriptivist
> >grammarians] but IME most people who write 'could
> of' actually say
> >"could've".
>
> Forgive my ignorance, but may I ask for a little
> example using "could of" as
> "of"? :-)
>
> I've never seen this in a sentence (or I've not
> understand and forget or
> mis-interpreted it :-P)
>
> What kind of "of" can it replace in natural speech?
>
> I'd like my speech to be as natural as possible and
> that's the kind of thing
> I need to understand
>
>
> And, with the same goal of being able to talk
> naturaly:
>
> I know how to pronounce "I'd go", "you'd go", "he'd
> go", "we'd go"...
>
> but how is pronounced "it'd go"?
>
> [It@d] with a very short schwa?
>
> or is it simply not usable and everybody says "it
> would"?
>
>
> -Max
>
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