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Re: "To whom"

From:Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 26, 2005, 0:40
"could of" = "could have"

"If I had gotten here earlier I could have gone with
them."

"it'd" pronounced where I live as if it were spelled
"id-id". Americans pronounce an aweful lot of T's as
D's as in "boddle" (bottle) "cidy" (city), etc.
Someone who pronounces their T's is immediately
branded a foreigner.


--- # 1 <salut_vous_autre@...> wrote:

> >[1] Yes, for some few people "could of" actually > involves a real "of", and > >writing it that way might be justifiable [albeit > not to prescriptivist > >grammarians] but IME most people who write 'could > of' actually say > >"could've". > > Forgive my ignorance, but may I ask for a little > example using "could of" as > "of"? :-) > > I've never seen this in a sentence (or I've not > understand and forget or > mis-interpreted it :-P) > > What kind of "of" can it replace in natural speech? > > I'd like my speech to be as natural as possible and > that's the kind of thing > I need to understand > > > And, with the same goal of being able to talk > naturaly: > > I know how to pronounce "I'd go", "you'd go", "he'd > go", "we'd go"... > > but how is pronounced "it'd go"? > > [It@d] with a very short schwa? > > or is it simply not usable and everybody says "it > would"? > > > -Max >

Reply

Matt Arriola <azathoth500@...>