Re: "To whom"
From: | Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, January 25, 2005, 19:42 |
Who is the greater prescriptivist, the one who insists
we must use "whom" or the one who insists that we must
not?
I use it quite naturally because I was brought up to
use it. Others don't use it, and I let it go. It
doesn't hurt my ears or offend my sensibilities.
Being offended by "whom" is no different than being
offended by the lack of "whom". Such a person is not
offended because of what the other person says, he is
offended because he has chosen to be offendable.
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