Re: "To whom"

No. At least not in mine or other people's cases here:
 both seem to be acceptable to us, just sometimes
misuse of either form sounds odd.


 --- Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...> wrote:
> Who is the greater prescriptivist, the one who
> insists
> we must use "whom" or the one who insists that we
> must
> not?
>
> I use it quite naturally because I was brought up to
> use it. Others don't use it, and I let it go.  It
> doesn't hurt my ears or offend my sensibilities.
> Being offended by "whom" is no different than being
> offended by the lack of "whom". Such a person is not
> offended because of what the other person says, he
> is
> offended because he has chosen to be offendable.
>
=====
I have spread my dreams under your feet;
Tread softly, because you tread on my dreams.

	-- William Butler Yeats


	
	
		
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