Re: Derived adpositions (< Linguistic term for ease of changing word-class)

Mark J. Reed wrote:
> But whence "fore"?  It obviously is a morpheme meaning "front", as in
> "forward" ("toward the fore"), "before", fore- ("forearm"), which is
> still semiproductive in the meaning "pre-", but as a word on its own
> it really has currency only in the nautical sense of "front (of a
> ship)".  I assume it originally meant "front" more generally.  Was it
> ever a body part word?
I should have been more specific about what I was trying to point out.
The question I was replying to was originally:

"Any adpositions, that is, that transparently share a root with an
extant word of some other, large, open word-class, such as a noun, or
verb, or adjective? Or maybe an adverb?"

The part about "body part words" was an example that Jim Henry quoted
from Payne's _Describing Morphosyntax_ answering this same question; I
wasn't intending to imply that any of my examples were also "body part
words".