Re: USAGE: Beijing (was: USAGE: RE: [CONLANG] A BrSc a? & Nyuu Romaji)
|From:||Andreas Johansson <and_yo@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, April 23, 2002, 18:27|
>>Actually, I now must sail on the other tack. [beIdZiN] is a *much*
>>better approximation for the city's name than [pekiN or [phikIN].
>>The k > dZ change happened already in the 16th century.
>Not g > dZ? I ask only because in Canto and Taiwanese, si je ne me
>trompe, it's pronounced "ging", which could mean there was a
>Wadesy-Gilesy thing goin' on (and what, then, with "p"? p'>p?). But
>then, there are obsolete romanizations like "Kiangsi" for pinyin
>"Jiangxi" and Legge uses stuff like that in his works.....Oh, bother,
>now I'm thoroughly confused. To home! where the dictionaries dwell.
I was of the impression that voicing wasn't phonemic in Chinese? If so, k>dZ
or g>dZ would be the same thing. FWIW, the encyclpopaedia closest at hand
gives the pronunciation of "Beijing" as [peitCiN].
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