Re: preferred voices?
From: | Marcus Smith <smithma@...> |
Date: | Saturday, September 23, 2000, 20:04 |
nicole perrin wrote:
>Yesterday we were reviewing the passive voice in my French class, and
>one of the points the teacher made quite emphatically is that the active
>voice is preferred. I know that this is also the case with English,
>although I could never understand it.
Me either. I use the passive quite often, but I know other English
speakers who have claimed that they *never* use it. I think "never" is too
strong a word, but I must admit that I've never heard those people use it,
so they could very well be right.
> The only explanation I've ever
>gotten is that it's not as powerful as active but I don't really buy
>that.
That doesn't really make much sense to me. What is "powerful" supposed to
mean?
> Are any of your conlangs prejudiced against the passive voice?
>Or any other voice for that matter? (Mine aren't)
Telek makes very limited use of the passive, mainly because it is a recent
addition to the language (internally speaking). In "proto-Telek" there was
a marker for an indefinite subject. This marker has been reanalyzed as a
passive marker: "somebody found my keys" -> "My keys were found (by
somebody)". Thus, the passive is usually only used when the "agent" is not
known or when the speaker does not want to mention it.
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Marcus Smith
AIM: Anaakoot
"When you lose a language, it's like
dropping a bomb on a museum."
-- Kenneth Hale
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