Re: Orbis Latinus

En réponse à Barry Garcia <Barry_Garcia@...>:

> Have any of you visited this site before? It's authored by a Zdravko
> Batzarov. There's some links that arent up and some that dont work (like
> the font ones), but it seems to be pretty good. He seems to have
> information up about Spanish, Portuguese, and French. It looks like he
> intends to add information about Italian and Romanian. It's quite nice,
> and it's helping me decide on the verb forms for Montreiano (by looking
> at
> Portuguese and Spanish). It also looks like he intends to add
> information
> on the reconstructed grammar of Vulgar latin too.
>
> And this may also be fortunate, he has the Appendix Probi, and the
> Reichenau Glosses as well (Which would be more useful for a ConRomance
> Lang that originates in France rather the Iberian peninsula as mine
> does).
>
> Check it out: http://www.orbilat.com/00-Main_Page.html
>
I've found the Indo-European Database (http://tied.narod.ru/index10.html) where
Orbis Latinus is listed. It seems quite an interesting website for all those who
are interested in Indo-European languages, although it still lacks information
(most description of languages are only sketchy). But it seems to have a huge
list of links...

> Oh and Christophe, you wondered in your Narbonósc post reply to me where
> the french word for male comes from, well it originates from
> "masculi"apparently. So, you were right in that the circumflex
> indicates
> there was an s in there.
>
Oh, now I understand how Spanish macho and French mâle could be cognates: in the
first case, only the "u" was lost, leading to "masclo", while in the second, the
whole syllable "cu" was lost, leading to "maslo". Then the usual sound changes
of both languages led to /matSo/ "macho" and /mAl/ "mâle" (now simply
pronounced /mal/). Still, I don't see where "femelle" (female) derives from. Not
"femina", for sure...

Christophe.