Cool! Thanks.
----- Tom H.C. in MI
--- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@N...>
wrote:
> > I read a comment in somebody's article to the effect that it is an
> > absolute universal that no verb is ever marked for agreement with
more
> > than two of its core arguments/actants/participants. Is this really
> > true? If it isn't, what's a counter-example?
>
> Counter-Example: Basque
>
> Verbs also show agreement with dative argument in ditransitive
clauses. Eg:
>
> esan diet
> esa-n di-e-t
> say-perf 3rd.abs.pres-3rd.pl.dat-1st.erg
> I said it to them
>
> Notice that the auxilliary diet contains anaphoric agreement with all
> three of abs, erg and dative.