> I read a comment in somebody's article to the effect that it is an
> absolute universal that no verb is ever marked for agreement with more
> than two of its core arguments/actants/participants. Is this really
> true? If it isn't, what's a counter-example?
Counter-Example: Basque
Verbs also show agreement with dative argument in ditransitive clauses. Eg:
esan diet
esa-n di-e-t
say-perf 3rd.abs.pres-3rd.pl.dat-1st.erg
I said it to them
Notice that the auxilliary diet contains anaphoric agreement with all
three of abs, erg and dative.