Re: THEORY: Can Ditransitive Verbs Agree With More Than Two Core Arguments?

Hi!

Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> writes:
> > I read a comment in somebody's article to the effect that it is an
> > absolute universal that no verb is ever marked for agreement with more
> > than two of its core arguments/actants/participants.  Is this really
> > true?  If it isn't, what's a counter-example?
>
> Counter-Example: Basque
And many others, e.g. Georgian and Modern Spoken French, to give more
examples.

That universal is hardly even a vague rule, I think, as many languages
have agreement with indirect objects on their verbs.  But ok, they are
not the majority of language. :-)

**Henrik

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