Re: THEORY: Can Ditransitive Verbs Agree With More Than Two Core Arguments?
From: | Henrik Theiling <theiling@...> |
Date: | Thursday, May 19, 2005, 19:07 |
Hi!
Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> writes:
> > I read a comment in somebody's article to the effect that it is an
> > absolute universal that no verb is ever marked for agreement with more
> > than two of its core arguments/actants/participants. Is this really
> > true? If it isn't, what's a counter-example?
>
> Counter-Example: Basque
And many others, e.g. Georgian and Modern Spoken French, to give more
examples.
That universal is hardly even a vague rule, I think, as many languages
have agreement with indirect objects on their verbs. But ok, they are
not the majority of language. :-)
**Henrik
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