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Re: THEORY: Can Ditransitive Verbs Agree With More Than Two Core Arguments?

From:Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>
Date:Thursday, May 19, 2005, 19:07
Hi!

Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> writes:
> > I read a comment in somebody's article to the effect that it is an > > absolute universal that no verb is ever marked for agreement with more > > than two of its core arguments/actants/participants. Is this really > > true? If it isn't, what's a counter-example? > > Counter-Example: Basque
And many others, e.g. Georgian and Modern Spoken French, to give more examples. That universal is hardly even a vague rule, I think, as many languages have agreement with indirect objects on their verbs. But ok, they are not the majority of language. :-) **Henrik

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tomhchappell <tomhchappell@...>