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Re: Inclusive or exclusive?

From:Jörg Rhiemeier <joerg_rhiemeier@...>
Date:Wednesday, March 21, 2007, 17:16
Hallo!

On Tue, 20 Mar 2007 19:43:06 +0200, Isaac Penzev wrote:

> Hi ppl, > > I want to ask for your advice. I'll be brief. > > If a language makes personal pronouns plural by adding a plural suffix to > singular stems, like _gan_ 'thou' > _gan.tay_ 'you (pl)', and has > inclusive/exclusive distinction in 1pl, would _nan.tay_ (< _nan_ 'I') mean > 'we (incl)' or 'we (excl)'?
We(excl). I have read somewhere that if 1) plural pronouns are formed from singular pronouns by means of a suffix and 2) there is an inclusive/exclusive distinction, the regular plural of the 1st person pronoun has exclusive meaning. In Tok Pisin, for example, you have _mi_ 'I' _mipela_ 'we (excl.)' _yumipela_ 'we (incl.)' _yu_ 'thou' _yupela_ 'you (pl.)' (Correct me if I'm wrong.) Or AFMCL Old Albic: _ma_ 'I' _mi_ 'we (excl.)' _vi_ 'we (incl.)' _tha_ 'thou' _thi_ 'you (pl.)' ... brought to you by the Weeping Elf

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David J. Peterson <dedalvs@...>