From: | Isaac Penzev <isaacp@...> |
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Date: | Tuesday, March 20, 2007, 17:45 |
Hi ppl, I want to ask for your advice. I'll be brief. If a language makes personal pronouns plural by adding a plural suffix to singular stems, like _gan_ 'thou' > _gan.tay_ 'you (pl)', and has inclusive/exclusive distinction in 1pl, would _nan.tay_ (< _nan_ 'I') mean 'we (incl)' or 'we (excl)'? Its counterpart would be smth like _tan_ (that is, similar to the sn stem). Friendly -- Yitzik
Roger Mills <rfmilly@...> | |
Christopher Bates <chris.maths_student@...> |